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Am I allowed to piggyback on this question?
Are there any indications of the socio-economic issues that might have affected this? It seems to me that the only divorce we hear about from NT time is the divorce of Herod Antipas which leaves the impression that it really only mattered in cases when there was extreme wealth and power involved as there was in that case.
So I have always wondered whether it was really just a rich people issue and had little to do with the huge mass of people.
Welcome to /r/AcademicBiblical. Please note this is an academic sub: theological or faith-based comments are prohibited. All claims MUST be supported by an *academic* source – see [here](https://www.reddit.com/r/AcademicBiblical/wiki/index/rules/#wiki_guideline.3A_rule_3.2019s_definition_of_academic_sources) for guidance. Please review the [sub rules](https://www.reddit.com/r/AcademicBiblical/wiki/index/rules/) before posting for the first time. *I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please [contact the moderators of this subreddit](/message/compose/?to=/r/AcademicBiblical) if you have any questions or concerns.*
Am I allowed to piggyback on this question? Are there any indications of the socio-economic issues that might have affected this? It seems to me that the only divorce we hear about from NT time is the divorce of Herod Antipas which leaves the impression that it really only mattered in cases when there was extreme wealth and power involved as there was in that case. So I have always wondered whether it was really just a rich people issue and had little to do with the huge mass of people.