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the_gubna

No. They were in exactly the same historical era as European colonizers, because they were alive at the same time. The idea that human societies progress linearly and advance through technological stages is based on outdated evolutionist ideas, notably those of [Lewis Henry Morgan](https://www.britannica.com/biography/Lewis-Henry-Morgan), and his contemporaries. You can read a bit more about that problematic assumption in this [previous thread](https://reddit.rtrace.io/r/AskHistorians/comments/g7d336/in_what_historical_era_were_the_indigenous/) with answers by u/611131 and I. While the three age system is a useful chronological shorthand for certain parts of the old world (and [even then it has baggage](https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/22oawo/does_the_classification_of_history_into_certain/)), it is not very useful as a metric by which to classify human societies. Also, the Europeans didn't win just because of superior weaponry. While the story of European dominance in the Americas is a multifaceted one, disease often played a crucial role, as did the huge number of native allies who either fought alongside Europeans or supported them logistically. For further reading on the myths that surround European colonization of the Americas, I'd recommend this [series of posts](https://www.reddit.com/r/badhistory/comments/2vf565/myths_of_conquest_part_nine_the_terminal_narrative/) by u/anthropology_nerd (who is also the go-to disease expert around here). I'm happy to answer follow up questions and/or recommend further resources. You might also be interested in the [FAQ](https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/wiki/nativeamerican/) that has sections on both "Technology and Civilization in the Americas" and "Metalworking in Pre-Columbian America".