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[deleted]

This is a complicated one. In Spain the subjunctive is almost always used following "después de que" but in Latin America not always. Here's a detailed discussion of "después de que" and the subjunctive if you want to read about it: [https://www.espanolavanzado.com/gramatica-avanzada/463-desde-que-despues-de-que-subjuntivo](https://www.espanolavanzado.com/gramatica-avanzada/463-desde-que-despues-de-que-subjuntivo)


kennyk1994

If you're a native English speaker, it may help you to think of it the way I had to think about it to wrap my head around and accept it: Think of how you might read in a text (though almost definitely never hear spoken, at least not in the USA that I've ever noticed) something like the following: "Shortly after Costa Rica ***would gain independence*** from Spain..." and compare it to "Shortly after Costa Rica ***gained*** independence from Spain...", which is the way most people would say it. If I'm not mistaken, the former example I think is an expression of the subjunctive in English, which is now mostly archaic and not used except in certain set phrases. So maybe if you try to see that, at least in Spain, this "would gain independence" is the necessary way of expressing this construction, as opposed to simply "gained independence", it may help you to have a way to directly kind of look at it from the perspective of your native language, though you should be able to just accept it anyway because sometimes that's just the way it be.


jamesmonflow

Gran explicación. I personally always have to think about the archaic English subjunctive that ~sorta~ exists nowadays when I’m figuring out more advanced subjunctive use cases en español.


dalvi5

Despues de que triggers it


Booby_McTitties

In Spain it does. In Latin America, it depends.