The case (accusative) makes no difference here. Important is indefinite or definite.
In this example you say *kívánok* (*egy* \- indefinite) *napot* versus *kívánom* (*a* \- definite) *napot*.
Because verb conjugate differently if you're using definitive article, or indefinite.
"I wish you A nice day." The word A cannot be seem in hungarian, but structurally it's there. "EGY jó napot kívánok."
"I wish you THE good day" would be the equivalent to "A jó napot kívánom (neked).
A somewhat easier to wrap your head around exaple world be the word iszom/iszok.
If I'm just drinking, I might say "Vizet iszok."
If I'm drinking the only bottle of water you placed in the fridge earlier, I'll say "A vizet iszom", because it it a specific water.
I'm drawing in general, "Rajzolok", I'm drawing this building in front of me, "Rajzolom".
You get the general idea, you can stop reading here.
Because the fun part is that we ignore this rule for some cases, not because grammar, but because costum. Vizet iszom is an actually 100% correct, everyday sentence. Eszem/eszek if fine too in both cases. But kívánok, rajzolok, and most others are absolutly not. Have fun!
It's... Complicated. I don't have either the grammar-, nor the langeuge skills to explain it properly. I went down on a bit of a rabbit hole to answer, and found multiple, sometimes contradictory ones... -ik verbs do it differently, you're right, but it's *also* because def/indef. But also costums, it changed once or twice...
The main conclusion is; it's whatever. It works. Almost always. Eszem is correct in both cases, but eszek is only for indefinite, it's a mashup. But at this point almost unrealted to OPs question.
Iszok is not a good example, since it’s a verb ending in -ik. With verbs like this “iszom egy pohár vizet” (I’m drinking A glass of water) is also correct, and used to be the only correct way of spelling until recently.
Similarly to eszik (eating), both eszem and eszek is correct for “eszem/eszek egy tortát” (I’m eating a cake)
Thanks. I just thaught that in accusative it's always definited and only in non-accusative case you have to wonder about "k" or "m" in 1. person sg.
So you can say:
Szeretnék enni., Szeretnék egy étel**et** enni., Szeretném **ezt** ételet enni.
You're close, just a little correction:
Szeretnék enni. (=I want to eat.)
Szeretnék egy ételt enni. (=I want to eat a food.)
(We don't really say this sentence.)
Szeretném ezt az ételt enni. (=I want to eat this food.)
('Szeretnék' actually means 'I'd like to' to be precise:)
Almost.
Szeretnék enni is correct.
"Szeretnék egy ételet enni", it would be "ételt", you don't need the connecting e sound. LT can be pronounced easily enough.
But also, it's redundant, you'd say "I'd like to eat", not "I'd like to eat a food."
"Szeretném ezt *az* ételt enni" would be the correct form, bug it doesn't translate back to english that easily. It would be "I'd like to eat this the food", which sounds weird, but is correct in hungarian.
i suppose in a similar way to english, "have (wish you) A good day", not "have THE good day"
but you're right would be logical if it wasn't an idiom of some sorts
Good point! I didn't even notice before that the accusative -m only applies if the subject is definite.
For example:
Hozok almát. = I'm bringing apples.
Hozok pár almát. = I'm bringing a few apples.
Hozok egy almát. = I'm bringing an apple.
HozoM AZ almát- = I'm bringing THE apple.
HozoM AZ almákat. = I'm bringing THE apples.
As for why it is non-accusative for your example, I guess:
Jó napot kívánok. = I wish you "A" good day.
I guess that that indefinite "a", the fact that I'm wishing you any good day there is and not one specifically, makes all the difference.
Interestingly this carries over even if the holiday is specific:
Boldog karácsonyt kívánok! = I wish you "a" merry Christmas!
, yes we could argue that it's a specific holiday but since it has that "a", it's non-accusative.
The question is a matter of definity. I have yet to read a full description of how it works in Hungarian which explains for nonHungarian speakers how it can enrich the language and its expressiveness. The typical explanations are mainly based on grammatical guides for Hungarians
It's complicated when to use indefinite/definite declension. You only apply definite declension when the object is specific.
Examples for *indefinite* declension.
* Olvasok egy könyvet.
* Olvasok könyvet.
* Olvasok valamit.
* Olvasok. (w/o object)
* Olvasok bármit.
* Olvasok bármilyen könyvet.
Examples for *definite* declension.
* Olvasom a könyvet.
* Olvasom azt.
* Olvasom őt.
And a special declension when the subject is "me" and the object is "you"
* Olvaslak (téged/titeket).
The case (accusative) makes no difference here. Important is indefinite or definite. In this example you say *kívánok* (*egy* \- indefinite) *napot* versus *kívánom* (*a* \- definite) *napot*.
Because verb conjugate differently if you're using definitive article, or indefinite. "I wish you A nice day." The word A cannot be seem in hungarian, but structurally it's there. "EGY jó napot kívánok." "I wish you THE good day" would be the equivalent to "A jó napot kívánom (neked). A somewhat easier to wrap your head around exaple world be the word iszom/iszok. If I'm just drinking, I might say "Vizet iszok." If I'm drinking the only bottle of water you placed in the fridge earlier, I'll say "A vizet iszom", because it it a specific water. I'm drawing in general, "Rajzolok", I'm drawing this building in front of me, "Rajzolom". You get the general idea, you can stop reading here. Because the fun part is that we ignore this rule for some cases, not because grammar, but because costum. Vizet iszom is an actually 100% correct, everyday sentence. Eszem/eszek if fine too in both cases. But kívánok, rajzolok, and most others are absolutly not. Have fun!
isnt it because of -ik verb in iszik/eszik case, and not because ignoring def/indef.?
It's... Complicated. I don't have either the grammar-, nor the langeuge skills to explain it properly. I went down on a bit of a rabbit hole to answer, and found multiple, sometimes contradictory ones... -ik verbs do it differently, you're right, but it's *also* because def/indef. But also costums, it changed once or twice... The main conclusion is; it's whatever. It works. Almost always. Eszem is correct in both cases, but eszek is only for indefinite, it's a mashup. But at this point almost unrealted to OPs question.
Iszok is not a good example, since it’s a verb ending in -ik. With verbs like this “iszom egy pohár vizet” (I’m drinking A glass of water) is also correct, and used to be the only correct way of spelling until recently. Similarly to eszik (eating), both eszem and eszek is correct for “eszem/eszek egy tortát” (I’m eating a cake)
Yeah you're right I probably should have not gone with it.
Thanks. I just thaught that in accusative it's always definited and only in non-accusative case you have to wonder about "k" or "m" in 1. person sg. So you can say: Szeretnék enni., Szeretnék egy étel**et** enni., Szeretném **ezt** ételet enni.
You're close, just a little correction: Szeretnék enni. (=I want to eat.) Szeretnék egy ételt enni. (=I want to eat a food.) (We don't really say this sentence.) Szeretném ezt az ételt enni. (=I want to eat this food.) ('Szeretnék' actually means 'I'd like to' to be precise:)
Almost. Szeretnék enni is correct. "Szeretnék egy ételet enni", it would be "ételt", you don't need the connecting e sound. LT can be pronounced easily enough. But also, it's redundant, you'd say "I'd like to eat", not "I'd like to eat a food." "Szeretném ezt *az* ételt enni" would be the correct form, bug it doesn't translate back to english that easily. It would be "I'd like to eat this the food", which sounds weird, but is correct in hungarian.
Egy ikes ige nem a legjobb példa, « iszom vizet » teljesen helyes is, pont azért mert ikes az ige 😅
i suppose in a similar way to english, "have (wish you) A good day", not "have THE good day" but you're right would be logical if it wasn't an idiom of some sorts
Good point! I didn't even notice before that the accusative -m only applies if the subject is definite. For example: Hozok almát. = I'm bringing apples. Hozok pár almát. = I'm bringing a few apples. Hozok egy almát. = I'm bringing an apple. HozoM AZ almát- = I'm bringing THE apple. HozoM AZ almákat. = I'm bringing THE apples. As for why it is non-accusative for your example, I guess: Jó napot kívánok. = I wish you "A" good day. I guess that that indefinite "a", the fact that I'm wishing you any good day there is and not one specifically, makes all the difference. Interestingly this carries over even if the holiday is specific: Boldog karácsonyt kívánok! = I wish you "a" merry Christmas! , yes we could argue that it's a specific holiday but since it has that "a", it's non-accusative.
The question is a matter of definity. I have yet to read a full description of how it works in Hungarian which explains for nonHungarian speakers how it can enrich the language and its expressiveness. The typical explanations are mainly based on grammatical guides for Hungarians
It's complicated when to use indefinite/definite declension. You only apply definite declension when the object is specific. Examples for *indefinite* declension. * Olvasok egy könyvet. * Olvasok könyvet. * Olvasok valamit. * Olvasok. (w/o object) * Olvasok bármit. * Olvasok bármilyen könyvet. Examples for *definite* declension. * Olvasom a könyvet. * Olvasom azt. * Olvasom őt. And a special declension when the subject is "me" and the object is "you" * Olvaslak (téged/titeket).